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Wigglesworth - 2 of 6 - Pentecostal Gift of Tongues

Doctrine Article - D.0005_02

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(Part 2 - The following is part of our response to a series of emails from a man who disputed our Smith Wigglesworth_article, and who presented common arguments in support of Pentecostal experiences.  He claims to have personal experience with baptism of fire, healing, deliverance and the practice of charismatic tongues, as promoted by Wigglesworth.)

PART 1 - Wigglesworth_1_of_6_Pentecostal_Baptism_of_Fire
PART 2 - Wigglesworth_2_of_6_Pentecostal_Gift_of_Tongues
PART 3 - Wigglesworth_3_of_6_Biblical_Tongues
PART 4 - Wigglesworth_4_of_6_Joel_Prophecy_Defending_Tongues
PART 5 - Wigglesworth_5_of_6_Healing_and_Deliverance
PART 6 - Wigglesworth_6_of_6_Prophecy_Gifts_and_Pentecostal_Practice

1. In reference to tongues, you have asked, "Where does it say they have ceased?" But even in asking this you have used a fallacious argument. Contrary to the laws of formal logic, you have "shifted the burden of proof", trying to argue in defence of a premise by demanding that a contrary premise be proved rather than by presenting arguments in defence of your own original premise.

 

2. The reality is that, if you wish to defend the premise that the "manifestation gift of tongues" is still valid today, then the burden of proof is on you to prove that tongues are being manifested today as they were by the apostles and early church. (The onus is on the salesman to validate his claims for his product.)

 

3. IF the 'tongues' spoken by Charismatics/Pentecostals today are valid (as Smith Wigglesworth purported them to be), then they must meet the requirements for the manifestation of tongues as outlined in scripture.

 

4. Here is another defence of my position from scripture. Moses was given 'signs' to validate his ministry in the eyes of Pharaoh and the children of Israel (The staff/serpent and leprosy in his hand). Are these signs still in operation today? (Let's use your reasoning and question…) When did they cease? Does the bible state that they ceased? No it doesn't; but you well know that these signs fulfilled their purpose, and that they ceased to be employed after that purpose was accomplished – without statement or fanfare regarding their cessation. Likewise tongues were given as a sign to validate the work of God "for the Jews require a sign…" (I Cor 1:22)

 

5. In case you might think that tongues are still needed as a sign today, I would like to point out several things:

 

a. Biblical tongues were not spoken after Acts chapter 19 (a book of transitions in which - like Moses and his signs - tongues were used for a time to validate the work of God in the newly established church with a sign to unbelieving Jews that God was truly the author of this work.) The single possible exception to this is found in Paul's first epistle to the Corinthians, a carnally minded people, wherein he rebukes and corrects them for their behaviour and their misuse of the gifts – including tongues. (Surely the Corinthians are not people that we are to spiritually emulate.)

 

b. Biblical tongues were languages known to the hearer. That is why the men in Acts chapter 2 were able to hear the wonderful works of God in their own tongues. Paul permitted the Corinthians to continue speaking in tongues (known languages; not gibberish), but he regulated them so that they didn't become a distraction to the services and didn't bring glory/attention to the speaker. So, when the gift of tongues was manifested, someone understood those languages.

 

c. Maybe your fellowship is an exception, but tongues have not been understood or scripturally employed in any of the thousands of services that I have attended. The "tongues" that I have heard (tens of thousands of them) have been nothing but gibberish. Biblical tongues are known languages. Regrettably, (like we and many others had as well) you appear to have accepted the commonly taught, but false, belief that the gibberish spoken in services today is the same as the tongues spoken in scripture.

 

d. Biblical tongues were a sign for unbelieving Jews. Wherefore tongues are for a sign, not to them that believe, but to them that believe not. (I Cor 14:22) "for the Jews require a sign…" (I Cor 1:22) In the several thousand Pentecostal services I have attended, to my knowledge there have never been unbelieving Jews present at any of them, and certainly none present at most of them. People who attended those services would claim to be believers. Therefore, tongues were not scripturally practiced in the services I have attended, even IF valid tongues are manifested somewhere else on the earth today.

 

6. All of the passages you cited in Corinthians to justify the manifestation of tongues today are not valid, for reasons as follows:

 

a. As I mentioned, why should we seek to emulate the Corinthians as our spiritual examples – the worst examples of 'Christians'; to whom Paul devoted 29 chapters to correct?

 

b. The Corinthians were ignorant of spiritual gifts. (Cor 14:1) The Corinthians were worshipping the spiritual gifts rather than using the spiritual gifts to worship God. (Paul said they were using the spiritual gifts as "these dumb idols", objects of worship). (Cor 14:2) It is for that reason ("Wherefore") that Paul began explaining in verse 3 what they needed to understand.

 

c. Among many other abuses and abominations, the Corinthians had been cursing Jesus (probably in tongues and probably without knowing it – they were "ignorant"). Paul said that if they were really speaking in tongues, and really speaking by the Spirit of God, they wouldn't call Jesus accursed. "Wherefore I give you to understand, that no man speaking by the Spirit of God calleth Jesus accursed:" (I Cor 14:3) Why would he have said that to the Corinthians if they hadn't been calling Jesus accursed while they were claiming to be under the influence of 'a spirit'?

 

d. Tongues are not mentioned in ANY of the other epistles. So, why not follow those established patterns instead?

 

e. Paul said that he would rather speak five words with his understanding than ten thousand words in an unknown tongue. How often do 'tongues-speaking' people teach this truth today?

 

f. Paul said that a man speaking in an unknown tongue "edifieth himself". (I Cor 14:4) That is not a good thing, as many would erroneously suppose. The bible never and nowhere teaches that a man should edify himself. Even in the same verse (I Cor 14:4), Paul emphasizes by contrast ("but") that the gifts are not for ourselves but are for the edification of the church. In fact, we are repeatedly taught to follow after things that edify one another; not ourselves. (Rom 14:19) Sound doctrine does not support the edifying of oneself, but rather edifying the body of Christ.

 

g. The fact that God had established a legitimate practice at one point (and thereafter was not in practice) doesn't justify 'tongues' (gibberish) today. The Corinthians were carnal.  Think of these biblical examples:

 

1) Carnal thinking led Cain to take what God had once established – a sacrifice – and improperly conduct an act of religious worship with it.

 

2) Carnal thinking led the Pharisees and Sadducees to take what God had once established - Old Testament law – and improperly worship, improperly enslave the people and improperly reject their Saviour with it.

 

3) Carnal thinking led the New Testament Jews to take what God had once established – Jewish law – and improperly bind Christians by 'Judai-ize'-ing the gospel with it. (even Peter succumbed to this and was rebuked by Paul)

 

4) Carnal thinking led the Corinthians (and professing Christians today) to take what God had once established – the gift of tongues - and to improperly "worship" with it

 

h. So, the bible is full of examples of people worshipping the creature more than the creator, worshipping the law more than the lawgiver; and worshipping the gift more than the gift-giver.

 

i. 'Tongues' today are not practiced "decently and in order" – at least in the services I have attended, and certainly not in Smith Wigglesworth's services, as mentioned in our Wigglesworth_article. For example, women speak in 'tongues', more than one person speaks in tongues at the same time, unknown tongues are spoken by more than three people and interpretations are not given for over 99% of them.

 

j. Even in scripture when tongues were employed to fulfill their biblical purpose, all believers did not speak with tongues.

 

k. Paul was rebuking and admonishing the Corinthians throughout these chapters. It was NOT a good thing for them to pray with their own spirit (man's spirit), and it was NOT a good thing that the result of such prayer was that their understanding was unfruitful. (I Cor 14:14)

 

l. UN-FRUIT-FUL. Think about that word. Since when would you think that God would want us to be unfruitful? God calls us to reason together with him. He doesn't advocate us turning our brains off and being unfruitful in our understanding. We are commanded to be sober minded; thinking people. It's the devil's crowd who use drugs, transcendental meditation, repetitive rock music, Kundalini power and the like to achieve altered states of consciousness. And it is the devil's crowd who will be revealed as unfruitful on judgment day.

 

m. You asked, "When did the last days come to an end?" They haven't. But how does that make the "gift of tongues" valid today – or the "gift of tongues and interpretation" - whether a personal prayer language or a gift for the edification of the church?

 

7. Let's reason together about this. IF God were to employ the "gift of tongues and interpretation" today (and I've heard many claiming to be from him), then what message is being conveyed by the exercising of that gift? All of the ones that I have heard fall into two categories:

 

a. Repetition of what God has already said in his word – which renders the gift unnecessary; and

 

b. Extra-biblical (and therefore unbiblical) information, doctrine, and commentary

 

8. God has already said to us everything that he wants to say to us (Add thou not unto his words, lest he reprove thee, and thou be found a liar. Prov 30:6) So, I would be interested in knowing whether you have any examples of "tongues and interpretation" from your recent experiences that you would consider to be scriptural, given this admonition.

 

9. Prove all things; hold fast that which is good. (I Thess 5:21)

 

 

 

 

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